Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 07:05
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Have you ever had a bad gut feeling about someone and it was right?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why do some of those who believe in a god refuse to consider the possibility they could be wrong?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Do you wear tights for warmth or to make your legs look better?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.